rambo Posted March 27, 2009 Share Posted March 27, 2009 Hi everyone, i was wondering, how does one go about calculating the vibration forces generated by a hammer's impact theoritically?? i mean, i have all the information of the hammer, but if i want to know how much vibration is being generated in the ground after passing through the anvil, how do i do so? Regards. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CBrann Posted March 29, 2009 Share Posted March 29, 2009 well F=ma force equal mass times acceleration, a= d/t acceleration equals distance over time, and mass is usaully stamped on your hammer head and anvil.... thats a start.... beween that and Newtons 2d law.. every action has and equal and opposite action.... or is that the 3rd law? as for vibration .. I have nothing for you there... Physics was 15 years ago... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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